Mp Board 2026- Political Science Class 12th – Political Science is an important subject for Arts students. This post provides important questions and answers for students preparing for the 2026 annual Political Science exam of the Board of Secondary Education, Bhopal, for Class 12.
MP BOARD 2026- Objective Question Based Self Test – Political Science Class 12
Question 1 – Write the meaning of ‘shock therapy’.
Answer – ‘Shock therapy’ means treatment by inflicting shock.
Question 2 – Who was the last President of the Soviet Union?
Answer – The last President of the Soviet Union was Mikhail Gorbachev.
Question 3 – How many categories are human rights classified into?
Answer – Human rights are classified into three categories:
(i) ‘political rights’,
(ii) ‘economic and social rights’,
(iii) ‘rights of minorities or indigenous peoples’.
Question 4 – Write the meaning of the ‘traditional concept of security’.
Answer – The traditional concept of security means ‘national security’. In this, the country is protected from external attacks.
Question 5 – What are ‘natural resources’?
Answer: ‘Natural resources’ refers to resources provided by nature, such as air, minerals, water, the Earth’s atmosphere, oceans, and space.
Question 6 – What is ‘global warming’?
Answer: ‘Global warming’ involves an increase in global temperature, which poses a threat to human life.
Question 7 – What is ‘globalization’?
Answer: ‘Globalization’ means the transformation of the world into a ‘village’, in which the world’s economic, political, commercial, and cultural activities rapidly influence the world.
Question 8 – Write two reasons for ‘globalization’.
Answer:
(i) Rapid exchange of information.
(ii) Rapid flow of capital.
Question 9 – When was the ‘Planning Commission’ established in India?
Answer: The ‘Planning Commission’ was established in India in March 1950.
Question 10 – Write any two characteristics of the First Five-Year Plan.
Answer –
(i) Special attention was given to agricultural reforms in the First Five-Year Plan.
(ii) Special emphasis was placed on irrigation facilities. Large dams were constructed across the country.
Question 11 – What is the Shimla Agreement?
Answer – After the end of the 1971 Indo-Pak war, the Shimla Agreement was signed between Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto on July 3, 1972. Its objective was to establish peace.
Question 12 – Write the names of any four neighboring countries of India.
Answer – India’s four neighboring countries are Nepal, Bhutan, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, China, etc.
Question 13 – What two challenges did the country face during Lal Bahadur Shastri’s tenure as Prime Minister?
Answer:
(i) The country’s recovery from economic difficulties after the 1962 India-China War.
(ii) Dealing with the drought and food shortage in the country due to the failure of the monsoon.
Question 14 – What is the “Syndicate”? Write.
Answer: The “Syndicate” was a group of powerful and influential leaders within the Congress party. They played a key role in making Indira Gandhi Prime Minister in 1966.
Question 15 – What is the “Naxalite” movement?
Answer: A “peasant revolt” erupted in 1967 from the Naxalbari police station in Darjeeling, a hilly district of West Bengal, led by Marxist leader Charu Majumdar. Gradually, this movement rapidly spread to other states of India.
Question 16 – What is the restriction on “freedom of the press” (French censorship)?
Answer: On June 25, 1915, a state of emergency was declared in the country. In which the government imposed restrictions on “freedom of the press.” Newspapers were asked to seek government permission before publishing anything. Major newspapers like “Indian Express” and “Statesman” strongly opposed this.
Question 17 – What is the Anandpur Sahib Resolution?
Answer: Anandpur Sahib Resolution –
The issue of regional autonomy was raised at the conference held in Anandpur Sahib in 1973. The resolution demanded a redefinition of central-state relations. The resolution emphasized the aspirations of the Sikh community (nation or community) and declared the dominance of Sikhs. This resolution called for strengthening federalism.
Question 18 – Which region of India is called the “Seven Sisters”?
Answer: The “Northeastern” states are called the “Seven Sisters.”
Question 19 – What is “coalition politics”?
Answer: The 1990s were an era of coalition politics, where multiple parties formed governments, based on consensus on certain issues.
Question 20 – Write any two recommendations of the Mandal Commission.
Answer:
(i) Disadvantaged castes lagging behind in employment and education should be provided better opportunities.
(ii) Recommended 27% reservation in jobs for disadvantaged castes.
Question 21 – What are Perestroika and Glasnost?
Answer: Mikhail Gorbachev, the last President of the Soviet Union, implemented the policies of Perestroika (restructuring communism to capitalism) and Glasnost (opening up opportunities for trade and trade) for economic and political reforms.
Question 22 – Write two reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.
Answer: Reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union:
(A) Weakness of the Soviet Union’s political and economic institutions
(B) The Communist Party’s lack of accountability to the public.
Question 23 – Write the components of security policy in India.
Answer: Components of security policy in India:
(A) Strengthening military capabilities
(B) Strengthening international rules and institutions for our own interests
Question 24 – What is security?
Answer: The basic meaning of security is “freedom from threats,” meaning that security is preventing obstacles to the political, social, economic, cultural, and development opportunities of human society.
Question 25 – What are the sacred forests of India?
Answer: Since ancient times, ancient societies in India had a tradition of protecting nature for religious reasons. These places were considered to be the abode of gods or some holy soul. These are known as “sacred forests.”
Question 25 – What are India’s sacred forests?
Answer – Since ancient times, ancient societies in India have practiced the protection of nature for religious reasons. These places were considered the abode of gods or holy spirits. These are called sacred forests or shrines. For example, Wani, Kenkari, and Oran in Rajasthan; Lyngdoh in Meghalaya, etc.
Question 26 – What are common property resources?
Answer – Common property –
Property owned by every member of a group, meaning every member of the group has equal rights over the level of use and maintenance of natural resources.
Question 27 – Write two reasons for India’s adoption of globalization.
Answer – Reasons for India’s adoption of globalization
(A) To rescue India from financial crisis
(B) To overcome unemployment
(C) Availability of world-class materials
Question 28 – Write two reasons for resistance to globalization.
Answer: Reasons for resistance to globalization:
(A) Promotion of global capitalism
(B) Weakening of the state
(C) Damage to traditional culture
Question 29 – What was the “Bombay Plan”?
Answer: Bombay Plan –
In 1944, a group of industrialists prepared a joint proposal to implement a planned economy in the country, with the aim of urging the government to take major steps in industrial and economic investment.
Question 30 – Write any two characteristics of the “Second Five-Year Plan.”
Answer: Features of the Second Five-Year Plan:
(A) This five-year plan attempted to bring about rapid structural change.
(B) Develop industries such as electricity, railways, steel, machinery, and communications in the public sector.
Question 31 – What was the “Congress Syndicate”?
Answer: Congress Syndicate –
A group of Congress leaders who controlled the party organization, led by the former Chief Minister of Madras Province and President of the Congress Party. K. Kamaraj was the former.
Question 32 – What is “defection”?
Answer: Defection –
When a public representative contests an election under a particular party’s symbol and wins, and then leaves the party and joins another party after winning, it is called “defection.”
Question 33 – What was the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?
Answer: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment was passed through Parliament by the then Prime Minister, Mrs. Indira Gandhi. It included:
(A) Increasing the term of the country’s legislature from 5 years to 6 years.
(B) The election of the Prime Minister, President, and Vice President cannot be challenged in court.
(C) Postponing elections for one year during the Emergency.
(Full marks will be given for meaningful answers within the word limit.)
Question 34 – Write two lessons from the Emergency.
Answer: Two lessons from the Emergency:
(A) The Emergency exposed the strengths and weaknesses of Indian democracy.
(B) Now the Emergency is only In the event of an “armed rebellion,” the Emergency can only be imposed if a written declaration of the Cabinet is submitted to the President.
(C) Everyone should be vigilant about their civil rights.
(Full marks for a meaningful answer within the word limit)
Question 35 – What arguments did the Central Government give when imposing the Emergency? Write any two.
Answer – The Central Government’s arguments in favor of the Emergency:
(A) Opposition parties’ call to police and government employees to disobey government orders, which affected government work.
(B) A nationwide strike paralyzed the entire system of the country.
(C) The judiciary obstructing the government’s functioning.
Question 36 – What is “press censorship” (restriction of press freedom)?
Answer – After the declaration of the Emergency, the government imposed censorship on newspapers to provide strict control over the country’s newspapers. Now, newspapers could not publish any news or criticize the government’s actions without government permission. This is called “press censorship.” Question 37 – Which region of India is called the “Seven Sisters”?
Answer – The seven states of India’s northeastern region are called the “Seven Sisters.” These states are Tripura, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Assam, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh.
Question 38 – What is AASU?
Answer – AASU was a student organization in Assam. In 1979, the All Assam Students Union (AASU) launched a movement against foreigners.
Question 39 – What was the “Mandal Commission”?
Answer – Mandal Commission –
In 1978, the Central Government formed a commission under the chairmanship of B.P. Mandal. Its main task, called the Mandal Commission, was to suggest measures to improve the condition of the backward classes.
Question 40 – What is “coalition politics”?
Answer – Coalition politics –
When a If no political party wins a clear majority in the general elections, parties with dissimilar ideologies often form a coalition government by agreeing on a common program. For example, in 1989, when the Congress Party failed to secure a majority, the National Front was formed, consisting of the Janata Dal, the BJP, the Left Front, and other regional parties.
(Full marks for a meaningful answer within the word limit)
Question 41 – Write any three consequences of the disintegration of the Soviet Union.
Answer:
(i) The end of the Cold War.
(ii) The end of the arms race.
(iii) The dominance of the American superpower in the world was established.
(Full marks for a brief description of all)
Question 42 – Write the reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.
Answer:
(i) The Soviet economy failed to meet the aspirations of the people.
(ii) A severe shortage of consumer goods arose in the Soviet Union.
(iii) The Soviet Union spent its resources on the countries of Eastern Europe, which increased economic pressure on the Soviet Union.
Question 43 – Write three reasons for the rise of China’s economy.
Answer:
(1) China is economically connected to its neighboring countries.
(2) China’s large population, vast territory, resources, political influence, and geographical location make it strong.
(3) China adopted the “Open Door” policy in 1978.
(Full marks for a brief description of each)
Question 44 – Write three objectives of ASEAN Vision 2020.
Answer:
(i) ASEAN Vision 2020 emphasizes dialogue over confrontation.
(ii) Regular annual meetings are held to address regional issues.
(iii) ASEAN has adopted a policy of “free trade” with China and India, Asia’s economic powers.
(Full marks for a description within the word limit)
Question 45 – Write any three challenges of “nation building.”
Answer:
(i) To unite the country.
(ii) To maintain democracy.
(iii) To adopt a development policy that benefits the entire society.
(Full marks for description within the word limit)
Question 46 – What was the ‘Instrument of Accession’?
Answer: After India’s independence, the instrument for the merger of the princely states into the Indian Union was called the ‘Instrument of Accession’. Signing it meant that the princely states agreed to become a part of the Indian Union.
Question 47 – Write any three consequences of the Emergency.
Answer:
(i) Anti-government protests and strikes were banned.
(ii) Freedom of the press was banned.
(iii) The government can withdraw the right to life and liberty from citizens during an Emergency.
Question 48 – Write any three consequences of the Emergency.
Answer:
(i) Democracy is deeply rooted in India.
(ii) The Cabinet should advise the President in writing on the declaration of an emergency.
(iii) Civil rights should not be abolished during an emergency.
Question 49 – Write three reasons for the partition of India.
Answer: Three reasons for the partition of India:
(A) Communal sentiments among Muslims
(B) The Muslim League’s place in the interim government
(C) The Congress’s policy of appeasement
(D) The policies of the British
Question 50 – How did the Hyderabad State merge with the Indian Union?
Answer: The merger of the Hyderabad State into the Indian Union:
(A) Hyderabad was a very large state surrounded by Indian territory on all sides.
(B) The ruler of Hyderabad was the Nizam, who believed in divine rights and wanted to keep the state independent.
(C) When a movement broke out in Hyderabad against the Nizam’s rule, the Nizam dispatched a paramilitary force called the Razakars against the agitators.
(D) These Razakars began to oppress, loot, and murder the Hindu majority.
(E) Ultimately, the Indian Army took military action, forcing the Nizam to surrender, and annexing the Hyderabad State into the Indian Union.
(Full marks for a logical, meaningful answer within the word limit)
Question 51 – Write the consequences of the disintegration of the Soviet Union.
Answer – Consequences of the disintegration of the Soviet Union:
(A) The fragmentation of the Soviet Union into smaller states
(B) Increased corruption in the country
(C) The end of the arms race
(D) The end of bipolarity and the dominance of the United States
Question 52 – Write any three drawbacks of the Soviet system.
Answer: Defects of the Soviet system:
(A) The stranglehold of bureaucracy in the Soviet system
(B) The dictatorial rule of a single-party Communist Party
(C) Russia’s dominance in the Soviet Union’s republics
(D) The backwardness of the Soviet Union’s technology and infrastructure
(E) A shortage of consumer goods
(Full marks for a meaningful answer within the word limit)
Question 53 – Write the main objectives of the ASEAN Organization.
Answer: Objectives of the ASEAN Organization:
(A) Accelerating economic development
(B) Social and cultural development in member countries
(C) Promoting regional peace and stability under the rules of the United Nations
(D) Informal, non-confrontational, and cooperative reconciliation
(E) Respect for the sovereignty of nations
(F) Creating a common market and production base for ASEAN countries.
(Full marks for a meaningful answer within the word limit)
Question 54 – Evaluate the main consequences of the 1962 Chinese invasion of India.
Answer: The consequences of the 1962 India-China war were:
(A) China’s occupation of Aksai Chin and some areas of Arunachal Pradesh.
(B) A blow to India’s Panchsheel policy.
(C) China’s expansionist policy increased.
(D) A need for changes in India’s security structure.
(E) A weakening of India’s financial position.
(Full marks for a well-reasoned answer within the word limit.)
Question 55 – Write the main reasons for the emergence of opposition parties.
Answer: Reasons for the emergence of opposition parties:
(i) Even in post-independence elections, India had multiple and vibrant opposition parties, many of which had been formed well before the 1952 general elections.
(ii) In the early years, there was a deep sense of mutual respect between the leaders of the Congress and opposition parties.
(iii) As the Congress’s ability to accommodate every individual and interest group seeking power declined, other political parties began to gain importance.
(iv) Mutual discord among Congress leaders
(v) The separation of leaders with different ideologies from the Congress
(vi) Leaders’ obsession with power
(Full marks may be awarded for a meaningful answer within the word limit.)
Question 56 – Explain the changing voting patterns from the first general election to the current general election.
Answer: Changing methods of voting –
(i) In the first general election, a ballot box was placed for each candidate at a polling station, with the candidate’s name and election symbol marked on it. (Blank ballot paper)
(ii) This method was changed after the first two elections.
(iii) In this, the candidate’s name and election symbol were printed on the ballot paper, and the voter had to stamp the name of their preferred candidate on this ballot paper. This method remained in place for the next forty years.
(iv) In the late 1990s, the Election Commission began using Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs).
(v) By 2004, EVMs were in use throughout the country.
(vi) Currently, the use of VVPAT along with EVMs has been made mandatory.
Question 57 – Write the objectives of the SAARC Organization.
(i) SAARC is a major step taken by South Asian countries towards mutual cooperation through multilateral means.
(ii) Promoting free trade among South Asian countries.
(iii) Promoting peace and cooperation among South Asian nations.
(vi) Ending conflict and violence in South Asia.
Question 59 – Write any four characteristics of South Asia.
(i) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka together form South Asia.
(ii) The mighty Himalayan Mountains lie to the north, the Indian Ocean to the south, the Arabian Sea to the west, and the Bay of Bengal to the east.
(iii) The South Asian region is full of linguistic, social, and cultural uniqueness.
(iv) Different political systems, such as democracy, military rule, republic, and monarchy, coexist in the countries of South Asia.
Question 60 – Write any four functions of an international organization.
(i) International organizations help in matters of war and peace.
(ii) Differences and disputes are resolved through dialogue.
(iii) International organizations resolve most disputes based on the policy of coexistence.
(iv) They jointly address global challenges, such as epidemics and natural disasters.
Question 61 –
Question 62 –
Question 63 – Write any four functions of the United Nations.
Answer:
(i) Eliminate the threat of war from the world.
(ii) Resolve disputes through peaceful means.
(iii) Increase the potential for socio-economic development in the world.
(iv) Promote disarmament.
(Note: One mark will be given for each point mentioned above or other points.)
Question 64 – Write any four reasons for the differences between India and China.
Answer:
(i) Border dispute between India and China.
(ii) Chinese invasion of India in 1962.
(iii) China’s control over Tibet.
(iv) Secret military aid to India’s neighboring countries.
(Note: 1 mark should be awarded for each point elaborated upon.)
Question 65 – Describe the characteristics of India’s non-alignment policy.
Answer:
(i) A policy of staying away from military blocs.
(ii) A policy of staying away from the ‘superpower bloc’.
(iii) ‘Non-alignment’ is the main principle of India’s foreign policy.
(iv) Adopting non-alignment is essential for India’s overall development.
(Note: 1 mark should be awarded for each point elaborated upon.)
Question 66 – Explain the merger of Sikkim.
Answer: The merger of Sikkim:
(1) At the time of independence, Sikkim was under the suzerainty of India, meaning it was not a part of India, but was not a fully sovereign nation either.
(2) The Government of India was responsible for Sikkim’s defense and foreign affairs.
(3) The internal administration of Sikkim was controlled by King Dogyal.
(4) Nepalis constituted a large part of Sikkim’s population. The Lepcha and Bhutias were also supporters of India.
(5) Both anti-Dogyal communities sought help from the Indian government and received its support.
(6) The first democratic elections for the Sikkim Legislative Assembly were held in 1974, in which the Sikkim Congress won a landslide victory.
(7) The Sikkim Legislative Assembly initially attempted to become a “co-province” of India, then passed a resolution in April 1975, declaring its merger with India.
(8) A referendum was held, in which the Assembly resolution was approved.
(9) Sikkim became India’s 22nd state.
Question 67 – Write four major regional aspirations of the northeastern states.
Answer:
(1) The partition of India separated the northeastern regions from the rest of India. This region lagged behind in development.
(2) The region’s communication system is weak.
(3) Demands for autonomy, secession movements, and opposition to outsiders are the main problems in the region.
(4) The people here perceive a threat of “lack of employment opportunities” due to people coming from “other states” of India or other countries.
Question 68 – Explain the Tashkent Agreement and the Shimla Agreement.
Answer: Tashkent Agreement –
From April to September 1965, Pakistan attacked Kutch in Gujarat, India, and then Jammu and Kashmir. The Indian Army retaliated from the Punjab border, reaching close to Lahore. In this situation, due to the Soviet Union, the Tashkent Agreement was signed in 1966 between Indian Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri and Pakistani General Ayub Khan.
(2 points for a logical explanation of the Tashkent Agreement)
Shimla Agreement –
Seeing the emergence of the US-Pakistan-China axis in 1971, India signed a 20-year treaty with the Soviet Union. India received assurances that the Soviet Union would assist India in the event of an attack. War broke out between India and Pakistan in December 1971. The Indian Army surrounded Dhaka from three sides, forcing 90,000 Pakistani soldiers to surrender, and the Indian Army declared a unilateral ceasefire. On July 3, 1972, the Shimla Agreement was signed between Indian Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and Pakistan’s Zulfikar Ali Bhutto.
Question 69 – Write the main points of discord between India and Bangladesh.
Answer: Points of discord between India and Bangladesh:
(A) Teen Bigha Corridor dispute
(B) Ganga water river dispute
(C) Refugee problem
(D) Illegal infiltration problem
(E) Border dispute
(F) Terrorist problem
(G) Promotion of Muslim communalism
(Full marks if the answer is well-reasoned and within the word limit)
Question 70 – Write the functions of international organizations.
Answer: Functions of an ‘International Organization’:
(A) Saving the world from the ravages of war
(B) Promoting world peace
(C) Protecting weak countries
(D) Bridging the gap between developed, developing, and poor countries
(E) Protection from global warming
(F) Assisting in medical and health services and research
(G) Peaceful resolution of mutual disputes
(Full marks for a well-reasoned answer within the word limit)
Question 71 – Which are the organs of the United Nations? Describe the Security Council.
Answer: Organs of the United Nations:
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) Secretariat
(D) Economic and Social Council
(E) Trusteeship Council
(F) International Court of Justice
Security Council:
(G) Composition
(H) Veto Power
(I) Membership
(J) Functions
Question 72 – Write the objectives of the SAARC organization.
Answer: The objectives of the SAARC organization are:
(A) Promote brotherhood among the countries of South Asia
(B) Achieve the overall development of South Asia
(C) Promote free trade in South Asia
(D) Make South Asia a region of peace
(E) Transfer science and technology
(F) Expand mutual means of transportation and communication
(G) Strengthen cultural and social ties.
(Full marks for a well-reasoned answer within the word limit)
Question 73 – Explain the contribution of SAARC countries to the development of South Asia.
Answer: Contribution of SAARC countries to the development of South Asia
(A) Promotion of South Asian free trade
(B) Peaceful resolution of mutual disputes
(C) Raising South Asia’s demands on international forums
(D) Cooperation for environmental protection
(E) Efforts to achieve freedom from nuclear weapons
(F) Cooperation in cultural customs and religious festivals
(G) Respect for the sovereignty of different countries
(H) Cooperation in science and technology
(L) Cooperation in communication and transportation
(Full marks for a well-reasoned answer within the word limit)
Question 74 – Write down four major regional aspirations of the Northeastern states.
Answer: Four major regional aspirations of the Northeastern states:
(A) Demand for autonomy
(B) End of post-secession conflict
(C) Regional development
(D) Protection of tribal and social customs
(E) Resolution of regional aspirations through democratic dialogue
(F) Inclusion in power sharing
(G) Access to opportunities for economic development
(H) Promote regional parties
Question 75: “Separatist movements” are obstacles to the country’s development. Explain.
Answer: Separatist movements:
(A) Division of the country into small pieces
(B) Weakening of the spirit of nationalism
(C) Setback in regional development
(D) Promotion of violence and sabotage
(E) Promotion of regional sentiment
(F) Disintegration of social unity
(G) Threat to national peace and harmony
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MP BOARD 2026- Objective Question Based Self Test – Political Science Class 12